Here's a kicker! In the bible when there is a reference to homosexual behaviour the word is more accurately translated: pederastry? Hmmm?
Sex between a man and a boy?
(No sex between women and girls?
Why this sexist discrimination?)
Aren't we splitting hairs here?
By "boy" do we mean pubescent, from early childhood to puberty? Or are you still a 'boy' after puberty?
Pedophilia is to be discouraged under all circumstances, so if the former ancient Jews may have had something there!
If the latter, the elders might've been trying to ramp back on rampant man-boy gayness, so as to prioritize increasing their numbers to slay the idolaters!
What nonsense to use ancient Jewish tribal sex policies to govern present-day sexual mores, attitudes, and practices.
The word homosexual is not in hebrew or greek in the Bible. The word was inserted in translation only. There are many passages that make references to homosexuality and to pediphilia. The Bible is bad enough we simply do not need to misrepresent the earliest copys we have of the manuscripts. This is exactly why Christians tend to conflate himosexuality and pediphilia. They are obviously not comparable.
Exactly! However the word is better translated 'pederastry'.