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Do we all agree that the Framers were correct in placing the free exercise and the establishment of religion clauses in the Constitution?

ArturoS 6 Apr 23
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1

Level 7

The way I read it, it was a compromise between the theists and the non-believers; "You leave us alone and we'll leave you alone". A fudge, in other words.

2

Level 6

Yes. It would be even better if the government had actually followed that.

2

Level 9

Totaly did not include nonbelievers that could be grounds for discrimination and prejudice.

The Bill of Rights became part of the constitution in the year 1791. It applied back then to the federal government only. The first amendment religion clauses merely provided that “the federal government” may not make any law establishing any religion or preventing the free exercise thereof. It didn’t prevent discrimination. Private parties were free to discriminate back then: Catholics could discriminate against Lutherans or Quakers or atheists, and vice-versa. In fact, as we know, the constitution permitted the institution of slavery to continue to exist.

@ArturoS The best question I could ask is how did this get past Ben Franklin?

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