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If America has known peace for only 17 years since 1776, does that make them the most aggressive nation in the past 200 odd years ?

Green_lucifer 4 Mar 21
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13 comments

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1

How do you define peace, and where are your facts and specifics?What constitutes aggression? Until you define all those terms, this is exercise in futility to bash the US.

0

I would have guessed it to be a few more years, but I’m not really too surprised.

[freakonometrics.hypotheses.org]

0

While aggressive, I doubt that most countries have a much higher rate of peaceful days.

1

True. But Americans are raised not to know, or care about their country's "warts and blemishes". And, when confronted with them, they usually take a "stuff happens!" defense.

1

In theory, most of the time it's been in protection of allies (perhaps misguided in some cases), so you can't call it aggression.

godef Level 7 Mar 22, 2019

Oh, like passive aggressive

I’m glad that America is so benevolent and non-aggressive, especially in the Middle East. Liked that lovely old man on the corner telling the kids not to fight with each other because it’s not nice.

OK, I've rethunk my statement, I realize I actually contradicted myself. If doing this in the interest of allies, then yes you would call this aggression, because it's not necessarily being done to the benefit of the natives.

0

How did Squanto know English?

1

They say America is a big melting pot.

Empire

It needs to constantly churn the pot to keep the blood flowing.

1

Superpower operates as a superpower.

Internet:

Sad but true

0

I've heard rumor that technically the US government went bankrupt and we are now living under the USA corporation which is tied closely to the crown. Perhaps that is why our legal system is bound to the BAR which is a England based association. The real question to ponder is one Marc Stevens has been advocating for a while now...why is it in a nation of contracting do we see government in many forms (Federal/State/Local/Police/Taxation/Etc. all using force under the guise of presumed jurisdiction) Just why does the law apply if you have not contracted with a presumed authority? Something for people to really think about....

The American Bar Association has nothing to do with the British Bar. Practicing before one doesn't let you practice before the other.

"Why does the law apply..." Criminal law is different from contract law. Tax law is different from either. You should probably read up on the actual law, instead of reading conspiracy theories.

@Paul4747 This is why I said "Heard Rumor' not fact concerning the BAR comment. The Federal Government did go bankrupt on March 9, 1933. Under Criminal Law isn't there supposed to be an injured party? Why is it that people are charged with victimless crimes under criminal law? Tax law is abused just the same. Not a conspiracy theory. The federal government is making folks believe they owe a direct tax known as federal income tax when in fact all direct taxes are to be paid by the states. It is much more complicated in the perverse misapplication of the law by calling it an indirect excise tax on wages which is by definition the profit from a business activity. I attended several sessions with John Kotmair of SAPF who not only had the Income Tax code (Subtitle A) and Employment taxes (Subtitle C) but also the regs which were much more detailed than the codes. It was enlightening for a novice like myself to see the amount of effort our leaders put into deception using common words which under legalize mean one thing while to the common man mean something completely different . Truly epic....

@warlord13 I don't have time. Just read the 16th Amendment.

@Paul4747 I don't have the time either....but on that 16th Amendment:

But, aside from the obvious error of the proposition, intrinsically considered, it manifestly disregards the fact that by the previous ruling it was settled that the provisions of the 16th Amendment conferred no new power of taxation, ...

Stanton v. Baltic Mining Co., 240 U.S. 103 (1916)

There is no new power of taxation with the 16th amendment further....There is no power of direct - unapportioned taxation.

Further study can be found at: [synapticsparks.info]

I know exactly what/how they are pushing this through...by calling it a indirect excise but the tax really does not fit into that classification. But men with bigger guns than we have say it does 🙂

5

I'm really with sticks48 below with a huge DUH! But lets extend this to all homeo sapiens. Has there ever been one year in the history of us without war???

3

DUH!

0

In a word, yes. The other top nation for that would probably be England, for the same reason as the US. Both countries have very involved in building empires around the world. England got out of that decades ago, but the US continues to expand its empire to this day.

Britain please. The Scots, Welsh and Irish have to take some of the blame

@Moravian that's harsh

Well that is probably true now. Scotland was seen as an extension of England , or North Britain, but the canny Scots got their share of the loot from the British empire. Glasgow wasn't called the second city of the British Empire for nothing.

An empire is either continually expanding or it begins to collapse and ceases to be an empire. The U.S. is no longer expanding since the annexation of Hawaii. The next logical acquisition would seem to be Puerto Rico. However, inasmuch as it is way less attractive than Hawaii or Alaska, most Americans do not want it. Therefore, the U.S. has passed its zenith and is currently in decline.

@Green_lucifer Morovian is correct. For whatever reason a high proportion of Americans equate England and Britain as the same thing. Go back to 1707 and you will see why that isn’t so.

Not really sure what the American Empire consists of. It certainly doesn’t compare with British, Russian or French!

0

Definitely in the top five, for sure.
LOL

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