Yes. Why else would God have equipped Adam with functioning genitalia, then create a partner of the opposite sex also with functioning genitalia and make the only animal which could speak be the one who knew of the apple? If Eve was created to be a buddy to asexual Adam,she should have been a he.

He could simply be flawed like the rest of us. He is, afterall, made in our image (we are fallible).

Here is a video that helps to explain the garden of Eden "myth" and the genius behind the story from understanding meanings in original language. I like or find most of the information interesting.

Why are you wasting your precious time (your Life!) on stuff like this? Help out at a soup kitchen, or work for a candidate, ferpetessake!

That paradox sank when eve was created. Yes she wasn't the first woman, Lilith was the 1st woman.

....and which side of the paradox is winning...yes or no?

Doesn't exist so non sequitur

Considering that the Goat-herder's Guide to the Galaxy states that god is Omnipotent, Omnibenovlent, Omniscient, etc, etc, then this god would have fully aware that Adam and Eve would sin well before he/she/it even created them.
And what, exactly is SIN in the 'eyes' of this god, could it merely be that humans can do things that this god, being a completely singular Entity as claimed, is completely incapable of doing and thereby is JEALOUS of we Humans?

a very old answer: [google.com]:

Ohh this is awesome

Omniscience on wikipedia says:

Whether omniscience, particularly regarding the choices that a human will make, is compatible with free will has been debated by theologians and philosophers. The argument that divine foreknowledge is not compatible with free will is known as theological fatalism. It is argued that if humans are free to choose between alternatives, God could not know what this choice will be.[7]

A question arises: if an omniscient entity knows everything, even about its own decisions in the future, does it therefore forbid any free will to that entity? William Lane Craig states that the question subdivides into two:

If God foreknows the occurrence of some event E, does E happen necessarily?[8]
If some event E is contingent, how can God foreknow E’s occurrence?[9]
However, this kind of argument fails to recognize its use of the modal fallacy. It is possible to show that the first premise of arguments like these is fallacious. [10][11]