"There is no constitutional right to vote. There should be.
You have no constitutional right to vote.
Such a bald statement undoubtedly will come as a surprise to some readers, who may have thought that voting is pretty fundamental to a democracy. And indeed there are a variety of places where the Constitution presumes such a right.
The 15th amendment forbids abridgment of that right on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude. The 19th forbids abridgment on account of sex; the 24th on account of failure to pay a poll tax; and the 26th on account of age if the person in question is at least 18 years old. And Article IV of the Constitution requires the United States to guarantee to every state a republican form of government, which surely means that no state can do away with voting altogether.
Moreover, the United States Congress has repeatedly enacted legislation to prevent voter disenfranchisement. The best-known such law was the landmark Voting Rights Act of 1965, but further efforts to protect and expand the franchise were enacted through the National Voter Registration Act of 1993 (NVRA), which explicitly aimed to increase voter registration and generally ease participation in elections.
All of these constitutional provisions and subsequent legislation appear as if they were built on a right that lies at the foundation of our constitutional order. But that is not the case. The foundation simply isn't there. While the right to vote is presumed in a variety of ways, and, if it exists, may not be infringed for a variety of reasons, the right itself is never specified as such.
The provisions of the NVRA were specifically the subject of the most recent Supreme Court decision on voter rights, Husted v. Randolph Institute, which critics of the decision claim has effectively gutted the law. But the decision itself and the law it either gutted or simply enforced as written cannot be properly understood without recognizing the wide-ranging consequences of that curious constitutional omission.
At issue in the case was an Ohio law aiming to remove ineligible voters from the rolls by the following procedure: If a registered voter did not vote in a federal election in two years, the state would send a postcard to the person in question at their registered home address asking them to affirm their continued residence. If the person in question did not return the card, or otherwise establish the validity of their registration by, for example, updating their information electronically, nor vote in the subsequent four years, the state would presume they had moved and they would be removed from the voter rolls.
The NVRA explicitly allows for the removal of non-residents from voter rolls, and for sending registered voters a card that they have to send back in order to maintain their presence on the rolls. The Ohio law was assiduous in modeling itself on the requirements of the NVRA in that regard. But the NVRA also specifies that voters cannot be removed from the rolls for not voting. The question in the case was whether failure to vote in a single federal election was reasonable grounds for triggering the presumption of non-residence, and hence for sending the postcard, or whether such a provision amounted to, in effect, removing voters from the rolls merely for not having voted, something explicitly prohibited by the act.
Phrased that way, the question sounds narrowly technical, and something on which reasonable people might disagree. A strict reading of the wording of the statute, along with its 2002 amendments, might well seem to support the majority decision, written by Justice Samuel Alito and backed by the other conservative members of the Court, to uphold Ohio's ability to purge its rolls. Perhaps it is not reasonable to assume that people will respond to a postcard asking them to affirm their residence — but Congress, when it passed the NVRA, clearly thought otherwise. Perhaps it is not reasonable to assume that someone who hasn't voted might have moved — but the Ohio legislature thought otherwise. If the Court is not to substitute its judgments for those of the nation's lawmaking bodies, then surely it must allow the law to stand.
But such a conclusion only makes sense if it is a matter of constitutional indifference whether state legislatures enact laws whose predictable (and arguably intended) effect is to reduce the number of legitimately registered voters. And that's where the Constitution's silence on whether citizens actually have a right to vote comes into play.
If the right to vote was like the right to freely speak, or to peaceably assemble, or to exercise religion or to bear arms, then there would be a robust constitutional tradition debating whether this or that law constituted an undue burden on an enumerated right, independent of whether it traduced some other enabling statute. And even the most disfavored classes of persons would retain those rights.
For example, there is a robust history of litigation regarding the rights of prisoners to exercise their rights to free speech and free exercise of religion, in which the debate revolves around just how accommodating a prison needs to be to facilitate the exercise of these rights. By contrast, the overwhelming majority of states deny incarcerated felons the right to vote, and in most states those rights are not even automatically restored upon the completion of the felon's sentence, even though this disenfranchisement in no way facilitates the operation of the prison system in a safe and efficient manner. No balancing is necessary, because the right to vote is alienable in a way that our enumerated rights are not.
If there were a constitutional right to vote, the Ohio law would surely have been struck down as an unreasonable burden on that right. Indeed, it would be hard to articulate the state interest that would need to be balanced against the right to vote that might justify Ohio's procedure. Purging the rolls of infrequent voters is not even plausibly a good way to prevent fraud (a legitimate interest), and even effective ways to achieve that goal would have to be narrowly tailored so as not to burden an individual's right to vote, or place the burden on the state to prove the invalidity of a ballot post-facto. But if there is no right to vote as such, but rather a state right to establish rules for registration, then the only question really is a narrow one: Whether the state has successfully charted a course through the thicket of federal law, in order to pursue whatever ends it chooses.
Given the 5-4 vote to uphold the law, and the fact that Justice Alito had dissented previously even from the late Justice Antonin Scalia's 7-2 decision in Arizona v. Inter Tribal Council, the obvious take-home lesson for liberals and voting rights advocates is that control of the Supreme Court is essential to preserving voting rights. But this is a decidedly incomplete lesson to take. So long as the Constitution presumes that the franchise is a privilege rather than a right, something that states may legitimately seek to limit so long as they don't do so in certain specified ways or for certain explicit reasons, there will always be a legitimate basis for upholding laws that impose such limits. And a liberal court that struck down those laws could always be attacked, ironically, for being undemocratic in overturning the will of the people.
The core problem is the text of the Constitution itself. Amending the Constitution is extraordinarily difficult, but we've done it 27 times before. Even the process of organization and debate would force the other side to make arguments for why voting shouldn't be a fundamental right. And if the effort succeeded, the Constitution would finally say what most Americans probably assume it says already."
Who understands the 'reasons' why the U.S. Constitution doesn't already have an amendment that provides and defends the basic right to vote?
Here are other info links on no basic right to vote in the U.S.
[fairvote.org]
Why We Need a Right to Vote Amendment. The Bill: House Joint Resolution 74
[brennancenter.org] New Voting Restrictions in America (July 3, 2019 )
[brennancenter.org] Voting Rights Litigation (December 2018 )
This is something the ACLU & Southern Poverty Law Center address all the time! Donate, however little!
Voting indeed is a right even if it is not specifically mentioned in the Constitution. The 9th Amendment is one of our Bill of Rights and says "The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people." Parental rights are not mentioned anywhere in the Constitution or any of the Amendments (that I am aware of) but no one questions the fundamental rights of parents to raise their children, and the courts have repeatedly upheld parental rights even at times to the detriment to the children. Rights can be removed but it takes due process to enact the removal. No additional Constitutional Amendments are needed since voting is an essential element of our government by and for the people. Remove voting rights and we can no longer ldgitimately claim this characteristic of our government. Those who would deny voting rights to large segments of our population have no dedication to personal individual freedom which is a fundamental and essential element of our national identity and our political traditions. If we would do away with individual freedoms, we may as well simply scrap our Constitution and endure the autocratic form of government which would be the alternative.
"The Constitution has been amended 27 times. Excluding the Bill of Rights, 7 of the last 17 constitutional amendments have dealt directly with expanding the franchise and improving the way citizens vote.
Contrary to popular belief, there is not an affirmative right to vote in the U.S. Constitution.
While the U.S. Constitution bans the restriction of voting based on race, sex and age, it does not explicitly and affirmatively state that all U.S. citizens have a right to vote. The Supreme Court ruled in Bush v. Gore in 2000 that citizens do not have the right to vote for electors for president. States control voting policies and procedures, and as a result, we have a patchwork of inconsistent voting rules run independently by 50 states, 3,067 counties and over 13,000 voting districts, all separate and unequal." [fairvote.org]
"The language of [a universal voting rights] amendment could take several forms, such as one proposed by Heather Gerken of Yale Law School: “The right of citizens of the United States to vote in any primary or other election for President or Vice President, for electors for President or Vice President, or for Senator or Representative in Congress, shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or any State." " [democracyjournal.org]
@AnonySchmoose - I stand by assertion that voting rights are covered by the assertion of the 9th Amendment. Government by the people doesn't make much sense if the primary means by which the people participate in government is discarded.
I do compliment you on your argument, however. As others have stated, you have presented an argument which interesting and well supported. I find it disappointing that we must explicitly state every single right possessed by the individual in order to prevent them from being erroded dispite the 9th Amendment. But then, I have run across people who would force us to rewrite the principles of 14th Amendment because its historical context involved newly freed slaves and therefore could not apply to hispanics, women, gays, or any other traditionally oppressed or overlooked segment of our society. How absurd when the principles at issue concerning the Amendment easily apply to others - indeed all other menbers of society. Now deceased Justice Scalia did proclaim the Constitution "Dead, dead, dead" as a living document. No wonder right wing sources find reason to attack one of most basic of rights as Americans.
What's your point? Let's say there is no right to vote in the constitution, would that stop anyone from voting? There is no right to inhale or exhale in the constitution either, would that stop you from breathing?
I’m not sure the enumeration of the right to vote will necessarily make it less alienable than the enumerated ones. No right is absolute. Using the ninth amendment I think things have been fine. That said, an amendment for the right to vote would not hurt.
It's Implied only..the "Right" was only For White Land Owners...
Apparently, once we allow the powerful to usurp a right, and to say that they're only privileges to grant or deny, it takes a huge concerted effort on our part to actually demand and get the right carved in stone for all time. I added a link about a proposed right to vote amendment, which was introduced as House Joint Resolution 74 (H.J. Res. 74), a bill that would establish an explicit right to vote in the Constitution. [fairvote.org]
Wow but the links are to ultra right centers
The Brennan Center for Justice at New York University Law School is a non-partisan law and public policy institute that is sometimes seen as liberal or progressive. The organization is named after Supreme Court Justice William J. Brennan.
Thanks, you're correct about Sightline Institute, which I will delete and change to another website.
The right wing sources of those advocating for limiting or eliminating the voting rights of Americans doesn't surprise me at all. The American right wing has sought to secure their power even as they have become a minority party. Voters in state legislative elections within Wisconsin (I belueve) cast about 10,000 more votes for Democrats than Republicans, but Republicans sent twice as many representatives to their congress as did Democrats. My manipulating districts, the minority party retained a large controlling majority in the legislature. Such manipulation should be considered unAmerican regardless which party does it.